100 TOP Real Time CCNA Multiple choice Questions and Answers pdf download

Read the most frequently asked 100 top CCNA multiple choice questions and answers PDF for freshers and experienced

CCNA Objective type Questions and Answers List

1. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?

A. every 30 seconds
B. every 180 seconds
C. after the holddown time expires
D. when a link goes up or down
E. when a routing loop occurs

2. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?

A. Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
B. Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
C. Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
D. Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

3. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process?

A. all routers in the area have link state databases
B. each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors
C. LSPs use the reserved multicast address of to reach neighbors
D. routing loops are prevented by running the Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL).
E. Reliable Transport Protocol (RTP). is the protocol used by for the delivery and reception of LSPs

4. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?

A. floods the LSP to neighbors
B. calculates the SPF algorithm
C. runs the Bellman-Ford algorithm
D. computes the best path to the destination network

5. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors?

A. 30 second timer expires
B. whenever the network topology changes
C. immediately after the Bellman-Ford algorithm has run
D. immediately after the DUAL FSM has built the topology database
E. upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

6. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?

A. sends out its updated routing table to both ORL and BOS routers
B. sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS
C. queries BOS to see if it has a better route
D. only adds it to the local routing table and performs no other actions

7. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?

A. routing table
B. adjacency table
C. link-state database
D. neighbor table
E. topology database

8. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?

A. splitting routing topologies into smaller areas
B. assigning lower process priorities to route calculations
C. using update timers to restrict routing updates
D. strict split horizon rules to reduce routing table entries

9. What is the final step in the link state routing process?

A. successors are placed into the routing table
B. SPF computes best path to each destination network
C. LSPs are flooded to all neighbors to converge the network
D. DUAL algorithm is run to find best path to destination networks

10. What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol?

A. The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
B. Each router independently determines the route to each network.
C. Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols
D. After the inital LSP flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.
E. Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?

B. Dijkstra
C. Bellman-Ford
D. Diffie-Hellman

12. Which routers will router D receive hello packets?

A. A and E
B. B and C
C. A, B, C, and E
D. C only

13. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?

A. updates triggered by network changes
B. updates sent at regular intervals
C. updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
D. updates that include complete routing tables

14. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?

A. hop count
B. uptime of the route
C. cost of the link
D. a list of all the routing protocols in use

15. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm?

A. RIPv1
B. RIPv2

16. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of What will router B do?

A. drop the packet
B. forward the packet via the route to
C. forward the packet via the route to
D. use the default route

17. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?

A. the route with the smallest AD
B. the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
C. the route with the highest bandwidth
D. the route with the best combination of AD and lowest cost

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?

A. they are dropped
B. sent to default gateway
C. forward out interface Serial0/0/1
D. forward out interface FastEthernet 0/0

19. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:
R [120/2] via, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1
What type of route is this?

A. a level 1 parent route
B. a level 1 supernet route
C. a level 1 ultimate network route
D. a level 2 child route
E. a level 2 ultimate child route

20. What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?

A. Child routes are present in the routing table.
B. A classless routing protocol has been configured on the router.
C. The command ip classless is enabled on the router.
D. Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.
E. Routing table entries have a next-hop IP address and an exit interface for each child route.

21. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7

22. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?

A. EIGRP is being used
B. There is at least one parent and one child route
C.,, and networks are child routes
D. Traffic going to will be directed to s 0/0/1

23. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network

A. RIPv1
B. RIPv2

24. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?

A. The router will have to perform recursive lookups to forward a packet destined for
B. The parent route for these networks was removed from the routing table.
C. A route to would be classified as a supernet route for the routes listed in the routing table.
D. All of the routes listed are network routes.

25. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?

A. because it is the first ultimate route
B. because it is the lowest network number
C. because it is the first level 1 route
D. because it has the shortest mask

26. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of will not be dropped?

A. issue the ip default-network command
B. use a classful routing protocol such as RIPv1
C. enable either OSPF or ISIS as the routing protocol
D. issue the ip classless command
E. do nothing, ip classless is on by default

27. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host

A. drop the packet
B. send packet out Serial 0/0/1
C. send packet to network
D. send packet out FastEthernet 0/0

28. A router has the following entries in its routing table:
S [1/0] via
O [110/2175] via, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1
D [90/22455] via, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0
R [120/2] via, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1

The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address
Which route would this router use to forward the packet?

A. the static route
B. the OSPF route
C. the EIGRP route
D. the RIP route

29. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?


30. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the network?

31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?

A. ip classless
B. no ip classless
C. ip default-network
D. ip default-gateway
E. ip route Serial 0/0/1

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?

A. searches for a default route to forward the packet
B. drops the packet since the static route does not have an exit interface
C. performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet
D. sends a request to neighboring routers for the location of the network

33. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?

A. The router will only support classful IP addressing.
B. The router will only support classful routing protocols.
C. The router will use a default route, if present, when a matching route is not found in the routing table.
D. The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.

34. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?

A. metric
B. route prefix
C. update timer
D. administrative distance

35. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?

A. The startup sequence will reset.
B. The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.
C. The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
D. The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
E. The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements

36. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?

A. The destination networks do not exist
B. The IP addresses on the router interfaces must be configured as network addresses and not host addresses.
C. The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.
D. Each interface must be configured with the clock rate command.

37. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit?

A. This router only has two interfaces.
B. The router interfaces are not operational yet.
C. This router is configured to forward packets to remote networks.
D. The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
E. An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface

38. Refer to the exhibit. The frame shown in the exhibit was received by the router. The router interfaces are operational. How will the router process this frame?

A. The router will change the source and destination IP address in the packet before forwarding the frame.
B. The router will change the frame type to one supported by the WAN link before forwarding the frame.
C. The router will use the destination MAC address to determine which interface to forward the packet.
D. The frame was received on the Fa0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the S0/0/0 interface.
E. The frame was received on the S0/0/0 interface of the router and will be switched to the Fa0/0 interface.

39. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords.

A. VTY interface
B. console interface
C. Ethernet interface
D. secret EXEC mode
E. privileged EXEC mode


40. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router?

A. RAM permanently stores the configuration file used during the boot sequence.
B. ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules
C. NVRAM stores a backup copy of the IOS used during the boot sequence.
D. Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.
E. ROM contains the most current and most complete version of the IOS.

41. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?

A. The subnet mask of host 2 is incorrect.
B. Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks
C. The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
D. The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
E. The IP address of host 1 is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.

42. Which are functions of a router?

A. packet switching

B. extension of network segm
C. segmentation of broadcast domains
D. selection of best path based on logical addressing
E. election of best path based on physical addressing

43. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network?

A. If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for, it will be forwarded out interface Fa0/0.
B. If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
C. If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
D. If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/0. E. If RouterC receives a packet that is destined for, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

44. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site?

A. Sydney(config-if)# ip address
B. Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
C. Sydney(config-if)# ip address
D. Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
E. Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne

45. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?

A. The passwords are encrypted.
B. The current configuration was saved to NVRAM.
C. The configuration that is shown will be the one used on the next reboot.
D. The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.


46. The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

A. source IP address:
B. source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
C. source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
D. destination IP address:
E. destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234


47. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login

A. ensures that a password is entered before entering user EXEC mode
B. sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet
C. requires check123 to be entered before the configuration can be saved
D. creates a local user account for logging in to a router or switch

48. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?

A. load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration
B. load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
C. load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
D. check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

49. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network?

A. decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
B. uses the destination MAC Address in the IP Header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
C. leaves the Layer 2 frame header intact when decapsulating the Layer 3 packet
D. uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
E. encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

50. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?

A. straight-through
B. straight-through
C. cross-over
D. serial

51. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing?

A. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
B. Load balancing occurs when a router sends the same packet to different destination networks.
C. Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
D. Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.
E. If multiple paths with different metrics to a destinations exist, the router cannot support load balancing.

52. What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command?

A. the last restart method
B. the command buffer contents
C. the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
D. the configuration register settings

E. the location from where the IOS loaded


53. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

54. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process?

B. TFTP server
D. setup routine
E. Flash memory

55. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?

A. Router1# copy running-config flash
B. Router1(config)# copy running-config flash
C. Router1# copy running-config startup-config
D. Router1(config)# copy running-config startup-config
E. Router1# copy startup-config running-config

56. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?


57. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?

A. only the Layer 2 source address
B. only the Layer 2 destination address
C. only the Layer 3 source address
D. only the Layer 3 destination address
E. the Layer 2 source and destination address

58. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?

A. SW1 drops the frame.
B. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
C. SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
D. SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.

59. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?

A. user EXEC mode
B. privileged EXEC mode
C. global configuration mode
D. interface configuration mode

60. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

A. The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
B. The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
C. The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
D. The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

61. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

A. No collisions will occur on this link.
B. Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
C. The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
D. The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

62. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?

A. workstation C
B. workstations B and C
C. workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
D. workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router

63. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
E. 7

64. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?

A. The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
B. The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
C. The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
D. The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.

65. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true?

A. Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.
B. Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
C. Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
D. Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
E. Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

66. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information? append ?

A. to the last parameter
B. append a space and then ? to the last parameter
C. use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list.
D. use the Tab key to show which options are available

67. Where is the startup configuration stored?

D. startup-config.text

68. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?

A. Switch1(config-line)# line console 0
B. Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
C. Switch1(config-line)# login

69. To secure the console port with the password “cisco” to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access problem?

A. incorrect vty lines configured
B. incompatible Secure Shell version
C. incorrect default gateway address
D. vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

70. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords?

A. The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.
B. The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
C. The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.
D. The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password. Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.

71. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from the output shown?

A. The enable password is encrypted by default.
B. An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
C. Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
D. This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.

72. Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a switch?

A. The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
B. The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
C. The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: “banner motd” ” to be displayed.
D. The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.

73. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks?

A. Enable CDP on the switch.
B. Change passwords regularly.
C. Turn off unnecessary services.
D. Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
E. Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.

74. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security?

A. The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
B. Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
C. The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
D. After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
E. If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

75. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?

A. Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.
B. Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
C. Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
D. Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.

76. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

A. The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
B. Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
C. A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.
D. The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.

77. Refer to the exhibit. A user on PC1 experiences a delay when accessing applications on the server. What two statements about latency are true?

A. Each hop in the path adds delay to the overall latency.
B. Placing the bits on the wire at PC1 is propagation delay.
C. Total latency depends solely on the number of devices in the path.
D. The NIC delay at points A and F contributes to the overall latency.
E. The time it takes for an electrical signal to transit the segment from point C to point D is the cause for the propagation delay.

78. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?

A. hosts A and B
B. hosts D and E
C. hosts A, B, and C
D. hosts A, B, C, D, and E
E. hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F

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