100 TOP Real Time IBM Cognos Multiple choice Questions and Answers pdf download

Read the most frequently asked 100 top IBM Cognos multiple choice questions and answers PDF for freshers and experienced

IBM Cognos Objective type Questions and Answers List


1.Which of the following is NOT a usage property in Framework Manager?
A.Fact
B.Dimension
C.Attribute
D.Identifier
E.Unknown
Ans: B

2.When working with dimensional data in Report Studio, an intersection is useful for obtaining a value from the combination of two or more members that you specify. This intersection is called:
A.A Singleton
B.A X Axis Measurement
C.A Visual Angle
D.A Position
E.A Tuple
Ans: E

3.In Oracle 11i, which of the following objects does not physically store data?
A.Views
B.Tables
C.Materialized Views
Ans: A

4.When creating a package in Framework Manager, the following setting allows the data within an object to be used in other objects without the original object itself being available to report users.
A.Select
B.Traverse
C.Unselect
D.Hide
Ans: D

5.Without using aggregation (Group By), is it possible to determine the minimum or maximum value of a data set using Oracle SQL?
A.Yes
B.No
Ans: A

6.In Report Studio, what function would be useful in implementing alternate line shading within a list box?
A.Char_length
B.currentMember
C.mod
D.exp
E.Order
Ans: C

7.In Cognos Connection, RSS news feeds may be specified by a URL address.
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

8.In Transformer, alternate drill-down paths / alternate hierarchies must have the a convergence level that is:
A.Unique
B.Ordered
C.Open
D.Set
Ans: A

9.Are Metric Studio metrics part of the Content Store?
A.Yes
B.No
Ans: B

10.Within Cognos Connection, these objects are used to control the display of one or more reports in a single portal page or in a dashboard.
A.Calculations
B.Global Filters
C.NewsItems
D.Policies
Ans: B

11.In Report Studio, which of the following is not a valid prompt button?
A.Execute
B.Back
C.Cancel
D.Reprompt
E.Next
Ans: A

12.Within the expression editor of Framework Manager, a quality of service indicator on functions gives a visual clue about the behavior of the function. What quality of service indicator reflects the danger of poor performance on some data sources?
A.X
B.!!
C.!
D.&
E.no symbol
Ans: C

13.In Report Studio, at what level must the query be specified?
A.List
B.List Cell
C.List Column
D.List Column Body
E.List Header
Ans: A

14.Within Framework Manager, what objects are used to store key-value pairs which create conditional query subjects that allow for substitutions when the report is run?
A.Packages
B.Parameters
C.Filters
D.Query Subjects
E.Namespaces
Ans: B

15.When tuning performance, one should remember that the following setting takes precedence over the other two settings:
A.Advanced Routing Settings
B.Affinity Settings
C.Balance Request Settings
Ans: B

16.In Analysis Studio, what functionality would cause subtotals or totals to result in more than the sum of the rows or columns?
A.Custom Set
B.Nested Rows
C.Hidden Rows
D.Custom Filters
Ans: C

17.In Oracle 11i, what type of index is used to index low cardinality columns in a warehouse environment?
A.Function-based
B.Bitmap
C.Optimized
D.Normal
Ans: B

18.In Report Studio, what property may be set to prevent the object from being rendered and prevent its space from being reserved in the report?
A.Box Type
B.Visible
C.No Data Object
D.Contents Height
Ans: A

19.What is the Cognos 8 service that manages the storage of customer applications, including application-specific security, configuration data, models, metrics, reports, and report output?
A.Gateway
B.Package
C.Namespace
D.Content Manager
Ans: D

20.What feature allows reports to run based upon the package at the time the report was last saved?
A.Deployment
B.Verify
C.Versioning
D.Preserve
Ans: C

21.For what purpose are custom views used in Transformer?
A.Point-In-Time Reporting
B.Security
C.Manage Languages
D.Performance Optimization
Ans: B

22.Within Framework Manger, this type of SQL does not process query subjects as subqueries.
A.Pass-Through SQL
B.Cognos SQL
C.Native SQL
D.PL SQL
Ans: A

23.In Framework Manager, what object is required to enable drilling up and down in a hierarchy used in Analysis Studio reports?
A.Identifier
B.Fact
C.Dimension
D.Attribute
Ans: C

24.Which of the following is NOT a valid Oracle SQL statement?
A.SELECT column1, SUM(column2) “column2” FROM table1 GROUP BY column1 ORDER BY column1
B.SELECT column1, SUM(column2) “column2” FROM table1 HAVING SUM(column2) = 0 GROUP BY column1 ORDER BY column1
C.SELECT column1, SUM(column2) “column2” FROM table1 GROUP BY column1 HAVING SUM(column2) = 0 ORDER BY column1
D.SELECT column1, SUM(column2) “column2” FROM table1 ORDER BY column1 GROUP BY column1
Ans: D

25.In Oracle SQL, what is the command that returns the first non-null value in a list of values?
A.NVL
B.DECODE
C.COALESCE
D.INSTR
E.ISNOTNULL
Ans: C

26.In Cognos Connection, which of the following is a valid permission to be granted at the report level?
A.Run
B.View
C.Traverse
D.Edit
Ans: C

27.If the user desires to retrieve all rows from Table A and all rows from Table B based on a join criteria, what type of join would be necessary?
A.Left Outer Join
B.Inner Join
C.Cross Join
D.Cluster Join
E.Cartesian Join
Ans: E

28.In an Oracle SQL insert statement, is it necessary to designate the column names?
A.Yes
B.No
Ans: B

29.What is the regular aggregate property of a calculated fact object within Framework Manager?
A.Sum
B.Total
C.Average
D.Automatic
E.Unsupported
Ans: D

30.Can SQL code be added directly into a Report Studio report?
A.Yes
B.No
Ans: A

31. What can an administrator use to transfer security data from one location to another using Series 7 namespaces?
A. Settings (.csa) file
B. Local authentication cache (.lac) file
C. Local authentication export (.lae) file
D. Configuration specification (.ccs) file
Ans: C

32. What is the minimum requirement for configuring Cognos Office Connection using Smart Client technology with
Microsoft Office components?
A. Excel with MS Office 2003 Professional
B. Excel with MS Office 2003 Standard
C. PowerPoint with MS Office 2003 Standard
D. PowerPoint with MS Office 2003 Professional
Ans: A

33. What is created after the administrator initializes the metric store?
A. a metric extract
B. an object extract
C. a metric package
D. a relational database
Ans: C

34. What is stored in the Cognos 8 content store?
A. Log files
B. Metric packages
C. Report specifications
D. Metric Designer extracts
Ans: C

35. Which type of logging indication can show user calls that are made from Cognos 8 components?
A. audit logging
B. trace logging
C. event logging
D. performance logging
Ans: A

36. How can an administrator ensure that users who are logged on to Cognos 8 are not prompted to log on again when
they access PowerCube data?
A. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay point to the same local authentication export (.lae) file.
B. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay point to the same local authentication cache (.lac) file.
C. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay use, as their authentication source, the same NTLM namespace.
D. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay use, as their authentication source, the same Series 7 namespace.
Ans: D

37. Which model type enables users to drill down in Analysis Studio?
A. Architect model
B. Relational model
C. Dimensional model
D. Data Manager model
Ans: C

38. Why would an administrator want to copy a user profile?
A. The user was deleted using a third-party authentication provider.
B. The administrator wants to copy trusted credentials for multiple users.
C. The user has changed names and the administrator is setting up an account in the new name.
D. The user requires enhanced security permissions before logging on to Cognos 8 for the first time.
Ans: C

39. Under what circumstances would full logging level be most appropriately used?
A. Whenever users cannot access the data.
B. Whenever detailed troubleshooting is required.
C. Whenever more than one dispatcher has been configured.
D. Whenever the default configuration for logging has been changed.
Ans: B

40. At what level should the logging be set to capture the following set of details?
user account management and runtime usage of Cognos 8,
use requests, and
service requests and responses.
A. trace
B. basic
C. request
D. minimal
Ans: C

41. When the administrator is monitoring the status of services in the server administration tool, what does the list
contain?
A. services that are running or stopped only
B. all services listed in Cognos Configuration
C. services that are running or on standby only
D. all services that are set to true in Cognos Configuration
Ans: D

42. An administrator wants to show the Cognos Connection folder hierarchy in a portlet. Which portlet must the
administrator use?
A. Cognos Viewer
B. Cognos Search
C. Cognos Navigator
D. Cognos Extended Applications
Ans: C

43. What status can no longer process report requests but can accept and process control requests?
A. paused
B. standby
C. stopped
D. unknown
Ans: C

44. In Metric Studio, what must an administrator define before initializing the metric store?
A. Business calendar
B. Metric Designer extract
C. Metric management tasks
D. Framework Manager package
Ans: A

45. An administrator configured a Cognos Series 7 authentication provider for use in Cognos 8. What do the Series 7
user classes appear as in Cognos Connection?
A. Roles
B. Users
C. Groups
D. Folders
Ans: A

46. A user must be able to only view the contents of the Americas Inventory folder. What permissions must be granted
to the user for the folder?
A. Write
B. Execute
C. Traverse
D. Set policy
Ans: C

47. Before sending a report by email, where must the administrator specify the mail server account?
A. Cognos Connection
B. Cognos Administration
C. Framework Manager
D. Cognos Configuration
Ans: D

48. An administrator creates a shortcut that points to an invoice report. What happens if the invoice report is renamed?
A. The shortcut contains the original name and can be used to view the latest output before the report was renamed.
B. The shortcut contains the original name and no longer works because the link to the report is broken.
C. Cognos Connection automatically updates the report name in the shortcut, and the shortcut remains fully
functional.
D. Cognos Connection automatically deletes the shortcut.
Ans: B

49. When an administrator exports entries from Cognos 8, what file gets created?
A. Content store file
B. Object extract file
C. Deployment archive file
D. Configuration export file
Ans: C

50. An administrator wants to show the folder hierarchy of Cognos Connection in a portlet. Which portlet must the
administrator use?
A. Cognos Viewer
B. Cognos Search
C. Cognos Navigator
D. Cognos Extended Applications
Ans: C

51. The Report Upgrade task in Cognos Connection provides options for upgrading report specifications. Which of the
following is one option?
A. By folder
B. By role
C. By group
D. By namespace
Ans: A

52. Why would an administrator want to copy a user profile?
A. The user was deleted using a third-party authentication provider.
B. The administrator wants to copy trusted credentials for multiple users.
C. The user has changed names and the administrator is setting up an account in the new name.
D. The user requires enhanced security permissions before logging on to Cognos 8 for the first time.
Ans: C

53. What can an administrator create to ensure that multiple users do not have to enter database credentials when
they run reports?
A. Signon
B. Single signon
C. Collation sequence
D. Connection sequence
Ans: A

54. When creating the following Cognos 8 data sources, which one requires specifying a local path or a network path?
A. Cognos Planning – Contributor
B. Cognos PowerCube
C. XML
D. SAP BW
Ans: B

55. From within Cognos Connection, what must an administrator deploy to move an entire Cognos 8 application into a
new and empty environment?
A. Content store
B. Public Folders
C. Cognos namespace
D. Content manager
Ans: A

56. What distinguishes an OLTP system from a data warehouse?
A. An OLTP system captures and processes original business transactions, while a data warehouse does not.
B. A data warehouse captures and processes original business transactions, while an OLTP system does not.
C. An OLTP system is used to transform, clean, and combine operational data, while a data warehouse is not.
D. A data warehouse is fully normalized, while an OLTP system is fully denormalized.
Ans: A

57. Which object is required to create a Data Manager catalog?
A. Cognos 8 package
B. Fact build
C. JobStream
D. Database
Ans: D

58. What can Data Manager be used for?
A. To create a Cognos 8 content store.
B. To extract operational data from multiple sources.
C. To create dashboards in Report Studio.
D. To build a Cognos Planning application.
Ans: B

59. What kind of tool is Data Manager?
A. ASP
B. DBMS
C. ETL
D. ERP
Ans: C

60. A developer wants to create a connection to a database in a Data Manager catalog. When creating this connection, which of the following must the developer specify?
A. A default schema name.
B. Connection method that must be used to connect to the database.
C. Names, locations, and port numbers for the SOAP and socket servers.
D. User ID and pasword for the Cognos 8 content store database.
Ans: B

61. Which of the following MOST clearly states the value of using a methodology?
A. It provides a philosophy of development that maximizes return on investment.
B. It helps consultants progress in a systematic way to insure all critical steps are addressed.
C. It helps project managers estimate the cost and effort in developing a solution.
D. It ensures that early mistakes are avoided in developing a solution.
Ans: B

62. Which of the following BEST describes the relationship or differences between Iterative Approach and Cognos SIM?
A. The Iterative Approach is a specific technique used to iterate through the Design phase.
B. The Iterative Approach is a series of steps defined in the Analysis and Development phases of Cognos SIM.
C. The Iterative Approach is a philosophy of development while Cognos SIM is a collection of tasks, documents, and techniques to guide development.
D. Cognos SIM is the current Cognos development standard and is intended to replace the Iterative Approach for development of BI applications.
Ans: C

63. Which of the following is a significant cause of failure when using the technology-focused approach to BI Application development?
A. Users often have difficulty understanding new technology.
B. New technology often contains internal flaws and errors that affect the delivered solution.
C. The solution is focused on a single subject area.
D. Developers often focus on just the data.
Ans: D

64. Which of the following statements best describes the Iterative Approach of application development?
A. A prototype solution is developed after the initial user interviews. This prototype is then used as a basis for refining specific design requirements.
B. The design step is repeated multiple times before proceeding to the development step. Each pass through the design step further refines the eventual solution.
C. The solution is developed and delivered to the users. After approximately 2 weeks, the users are interviewed for any missing requirements and any new requirements form the basis for the next iteration.
D. A prototype is created that addresses 80 to 90% of the business requirements. This is demonstrated to the users and their feedback is used to refine the prototype in subsequent iterations.
Ans: D

65. Which of the following statements is true about the Waterfall Approach?
A. The five steps in the process are considered valid for BI software development projects.
B. Each step is performed in sequence but you return to previous steps at specific points in the development cycle.
C. It is designed so that requirements that are not discovered in the Analysis step will cascade out during the design phase.
D. Project management tools no longer encourage the Waterfall Approach.
Ans: A

66. What does configuring the .Net 0 Framework accomplish?
A. It allows the Controller COM+ object to access the Controller Database.
B. It allows users to communicate with the .Net 2.0 Framework SDK.
C. It creates a Trust between the Controller Client Distribution Server and the Controller client computer.
D. It allows for the encryption of communication between internal server components.
Ans: C

67. Enhance Reporting Optimization uses which of the following method(s)?
A. RSS 1.0 or higher, if the Database OS is Unix
B. File Copy, if the database OS is Windows
C. RDP to the Web Services Server
D. Controller’s FastNet copy utility
Ans: B

68. What can be used to provide remote users with access to Controller over limited bandwidth networks?
A. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
B. Citrix (Terminal Server)
C. Deterministic Network Enhancers
D. Installing the Gateway in a DMZ
Ans: B

69. Which component of the Controller architecture processes all requests for downloading Controller components to the end user’s computer?
A. Client Distribution Server
B. Content Management Server
C. Web Services Server
D. Report Server
Ans: A

70. Why is the .Net 2.0 Framework SDK needed?
A. To allow users to publish their Framework Manager models for use with Controller.
B. It provides a Graphical User Interface for configuring the code groups.
C. It is used to configure the Controller Data Mart Database.
D. It is needed when using Controller with SSL (Secure Socket Layer).
Ans: B

71. An application developer needs to know the last time the Sales Forecast cube was updated. The cube file, including the date and time stamp, can be found in which of the following locations?
A. In the data directory.
B. In the data file.
C. On the web server.
D. On the admin server.
Ans: A

72. Aggregation is automatically applied when building a dimension. Which of the following option is the basis for aggregation?
A. Formats
B. Rules
C. Attributes
D. Hierarchies
Ans: D

73. When an application developer constructs a cube, what is the minimum number of dimensions the cube must contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans: B

74. When users cannot access a TM1 application, the application developer should ensure the host process is correct. Which of the following is the host process?
A. TM1 data server
B. TM1 admin server
C. TM1 web server
D. TM1 local server
Ans: B

75. Data is loaded into cells in a cube. A cell is identified by the intersection of items from which of the following objects?
A. Attribute
B. Subset
C. Dimension
D. Slice
Ans: C

76. An administrator wants to automate the process of updating a Contributor model to reflect changes made in Analyst. To perform this automation the administrator must create a macro. Which step must the administrator add to the macro?
A. Import
B. Synchronize
C. Enable Job Processing
D. Add Monitored Job Object
Ans: B

77. With which is the Get Data extension used?
A. Contributor to Analyst D-Links
B. Local Links
C. Administration Links
D. Contributor to Contributor D-Links
Ans: B

78. Which Cognos 8 role is needed to ensure that only the required users, groups, and role have access to execute or schedule Contributor macros that are published to Cognos Connection?
A. Planning Rights Administrators
B. Planning Contributor Users
C. Directory Administrators
D. Server Administrators
Ans: A

79. When publishing data that will be reported on, why is it important for an administrator to carefully select the dimension for publish?
A. By selecting an appropriate dimension for publish, the administrator may not have to run Go to Production.
B. The dimension for publish is the D-List whose items become columns in the fact table.
C. The dimension for publish is the D-List whose items become rows in the fact table.
D. If the selected dimension for publish contains calculations it will not successfully publish.
Ans: B

80. If a D-List item name is very long, it will result in a very wide column if that dimension of the D-Cube is
placed on columns in Analyst. Which character can the modeler include in the D-List item to cause a line break so the column heading displays on two or more lines?
A. , (comma)
B. – (hyphen)
C. | (pipe)
D. ; (semi-colon)
Ans: C

81. Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in the exhibit?
A. Flooded supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Ans: A

82. Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Fully ducted supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Ans: A

83. What is the difference between an undervoltage and a sag?
A. A sag lasts less time than an undervoltage condition.
B. A sag has less of a voltage drop than an undervoltage condition.
C. A sag is due to downstream loads and undervoltage is due to the power source.
D. A sag occurs in low voltage distribution and undervoltage occurs in high voltage distribution.
Ans: A

84. Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Ans: B

85. What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Ans: A

86. When using a non-manual consolidation type, when would the administrator update the consolidation structure?
A. When importing investments for a parent company.
B. When changing the company structure.
C. When adding an account.
D. When entering period data.
Ans: B

87. When is a group company used?
A. When manual journals are needed.
B. When many parent companies are needed.
C. When consolidated figures need to be stored.
D. When automatic journals need to be created.
Ans: C

88. When creating a company, the administrator selects a consolidation type. What does the consolidation type allow the administrator to do?
A. Use the same company in different structures.
B. Create separate local currency on subsidiary.
C. Create accounts.
D. Create specific dimensions.
Ans: A

89. How can an administrator validate company structures to ensure that they meet the application’s rules?
A. Verify Structures menu
B. Validate Data menu
C. Company structure log file
D. Consolidation Types – Define menu
Ans: A

90. The administrator has generated a group adjustment company (GAC). Which of the following actions will a user be able to perform with the GAC?
A. Eliminate investments using automatic journals.
B. Enter reported value adjustments using a data entry form.
C. Enter data into group journals.
D. Create company journals.
Ans: C

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