Read the most frequently asked 50 top COGNOS multiple choice questions and answers PDF for freshers and experienced
IBM-Cogno Multiple Choice Questions and Answers List
1. What can an administrator use to transfer security data from one location to another using Series 7 namespaces?
A. Settings (.csa) file
B. Local authentication cache (.lac) file
C. Local authentication export (.lae) file
D. Configuration specification (.ccs) file
2. What is the minimum requirement for configuring Cognos Office Connection using Smart Client technology with Microsoft Office components?
A. Excel with MS Office 2003 Professional
B. Excel with MS Office 2003 Standard
C. PowerPoint with MS Office 2003 Standard
D. PowerPoint with MS Office 2003 Professional
3. What is created after the administrator initializes the metric store?
A. a metric extract
B. an object extract
C. a metric package
D. a relational database
4. What is stored in the Cognos 8 content store?
A. Log files
B. Metric packages
C. Report specifications
D. Metric Designer extracts
5. Which type of logging indication can show user calls that are made from Cognos 8 components?
A. audit logging
B. trace logging
C. event logging
D. performance logging
6. How can an administrator ensure that users who are logged on to Cognos 8 are not prompted to log on again when they access PowerCube data?
A. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay point to the same local authentication export (.lae) file.
B. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay point to the same local authentication cache (.lac) file.
C. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay use, as their authentication source, the same NTLM namespace.
D. Have Cognos 8 and PowerPlay use, as their authentication source, the same Series 7 namespace.
7. Which model type enables users to drill down in Analysis Studio?
A. Architect model
B. Relational model
C. Dimensional model
D. Data Manager model
8. Why would an administrator want to copy a user profile?
A. The user was deleted using a third-party authentication provider.
B. The administrator wants to copy trusted credentials for multiple users.
C. The user has changed names and the administrator is setting up an account in the new name.
D. The user requires enhanced security permissions before logging on to Cognos 8 for the first time.
9. Under what circumstances would full logging level be most appropriately used?
A. Whenever users cannot access the data.
B. Whenever detailed troubleshooting is required.
C. Whenever more than one dispatcher has been configured.
D. Whenever the default configuration for logging has been changed.
10. At what level should the logging be set to capture the following set of details?
user account management and runtime usage of Cognos 8, use requests, and service requests and responses.
11. When the administrator is monitoring the status of services in the server administration tool, what does the list contain?
A. services that are running or stopped only
B. all services listed in Cognos Configuration
C. services that are running or on standby only
D. all services that are set to true in Cognos Configuration
12. An administrator wants to show the Cognos Connection folder hierarchy in a portlet. Which portlet must the administrator use?
A. Cognos Viewer
B. Cognos Search
C. Cognos Navigator
D. Cognos Extended Applications
13. What status can no longer process report requests but can accept and process control requests?
14. In Metric Studio, what must an administrator define before initializing the metric store?
A. Business calendar
B. Metric Designer extract
C. Metric management tasks
D. Framework Manager package
15. An administrator configured a Cognos Series 7 authentication provider for use in Cognos 8. What do the Series 7 user classes appear as in Cognos Connection?
16. An administrator creates a shortcut that points to an invoice report. What happens if the invoice report is renamed?
A. The shortcut contains the original name and can be used to view the latest output before the report was renamed.
B. The shortcut contains the original name and no longer works because the link to the report is broken.
C. Cognos Connection automatically updates the report name in the shortcut, and the shortcut remains fully functional.
D. Cognos Connection automatically deletes the shortcut.
17. A user must be able to only view the contents of the Americas Inventory folder. What permissions must be granted to the user for the folder?
D. Set policy
18. The Report Upgrade task in Cognos Connection provides options for upgrading report specifications. Which of the following is one option?
A. By folder
B. By role
C. By group
D. By namespace
19. An administrator wants to show the folder hierarchy of Cognos Connection in a portlet. Which portlet must the administrator use?
A. Cognos Viewer
B. Cognos Search
C. Cognos Navigator
D. Cognos Extended Applications
20. When an administrator exports entries from Cognos 8, what file gets created?
A. Content store file
B. Object extract file
C. Deployment archive file
D. Configuration export file
21. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the implementation of object security in Framework Manager?
A. Groups and roles can be created in the Cognos namespace when specifying access to objects.
B. Even when object security is applied, if anonymous access is configured, every object in a Framework Manager project is visible to everyone.
C. A user belongs to two groups. One of the groups is denied access to an object. The other group is granted access to the object. The result is that user has access to the object.
D. Granting access to an object for one user, group or role (except the Everyone and All Authenticated Users groups), implicitly denies access to that object for all other users, groups or roles.
22. In Report Studio, why would an author set the scope when creating a filter?
A. To specify which grouped data item to filter.
B. To apply the filter after the data is aggregated.
C. To make the filter required, optional or disabled.
D. To apply the filter before the data is aggregated.
23. Based on the following graphic from Report Studio, what items can be accessed in the Members folder under Quarter?
A. All members of the Years hierarchy.
B. Only children of the Quarter members.
C. Only the members in the Quarter level.
D. All Quarter members and their children.
24. In Report Studio, where does a modeler enable or disable drill behavior on multi-dimensional data?
A. On the Toolbar.
B. From the Data menu.
C. In the Properties pane.
D. In the Insertable Objects pane.
25. In Framework Manager, when using star schema groupings in the business view, conformed dimensions can be identified by which one of the following?
A. Using a different query subject icon for display in the studios.
B. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Report Studio.
C. Viewing the properties of the query subjects in Framework Manager.
D. Using the same name for the dimension in each star schema grouping.
26. Which of the following utilities can be used to update PowerCubes without affecting users?
27. Which of the following techniques can be used to improve performance of PowerCubes in Cognos 8 BI?
A. Run the cube through the pcoptimizer utility that is shipped with Cognos 8 BI.
B. Enable the Allow dynamic usage of dimension information governor in Framework Manager.
C. Edit the EnablePCOptimizer entry in the Cognos.ini file so that its value=1, and then rebuild the cube.
D. Ensure that the Pass-through SQL setting is enabled on all regular dimensions in the Framework Manager model.
28. In Report Studio, in which situation is it most appropriate to use a Repeater Table?
A. Analyze financial data.
B. Create a mailing list report.
C. Compare values between and across items.
D. Clarify information not easily seen in a crosstab or list.
29. In Report Studio, an author wants the cities listed in the City prompt to be based on the Country selected in the Country prompt. What property must the author define to accomplish this?
C. Cascade source
D. Default Selections
30. What is true of a Framework Manager model of an operational database lacking a time dimension?
A. Virtual star schema models require a time dimension for multi-fact queries.
B. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries.
C. Time-based rollups for multi-fact queries may be difficult to handle.
D. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries unless using a union.
31. In Report Studio, based on the above crosstab, which relationship is true?
A. Quantity and Revenue are peers.
B. Order method is a peer of Retailer type.
C. Sales territory is a peer of Order method.
D. Sales territory is a peer of Quantity and Revenue.
32. The following report was created in Report Studio using a relational package and shows revenue by sales rep, city, and country. What will the report show if the author creates a detail filter for Revenue>500,000 and applies the filter BEFORE auto aggregation?
A. Only reps who generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
B. Only cities that generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
C. Only countries that generated total revenue greater than 500,000.
D. Only reps who had individual sales transactions of greater than 500,000.
33. In Report Studio, if an author wants to add Revenue to a report, where can the author find Revenue if the package is based on an OLAP data source?
A. In a level.
B. In a hierarchy.
C. In a query subject.
D. In a measures dimension.
34. If authors want to perform OLAP-style queries directly against a relational database, which Framework Manager modeling technique will a modeler use?
A. Create regular and measure dimensions and set scope.
B. Create shortcuts to regular dimensions and fact query subjects.
C. Create star schema groupings for dimension and fact query subjects.
D. Create relationships between regular dimensions and measure dimensions.
35. In Report Studio, when would an author use the Condition Explorer?
A. To add a page set to a report.
B. To set the number of rows on a page.
C. To create a report title that changes according to a locale.
D. To navigate between report pages and prompt pages.
36. In Report Studio, a modeler wants to create a calculation using items that exist in the current report. On which tab are these items available?
A. Source tab
B. Functions tab
C. Data Items tab
D. Parameters tab
37. The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of the following Framework Manager objects?
A. Query items.
B. Data sources.
D. Parameter maps.
38. In Report Studio, which item could be found in a package containing either relationally modeled data or dimensionally modeled relational data?
D. Query item
39. Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 8 security environment?
A. Cognos 8 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time
B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined
C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups and roles defined in the authentication providers
D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and roles (of which users are members), not individual users
40. What technique can Framework Manager modelers use to implement a time dimension for models that lack a time dimension?
A. Create relationships from date fields in one dimension to date fields in another dimension.
B. Use parameter maps to map date values in one query subject to date values in another query subject.
C. Use the Time Dimension wizard to generate a time dimension and create the appropriate relationships.
D. Identify a time dimension table source, import into the model and create relationships to fact query subjects.
41. Which of the following is true when Cognos 8 gateway receives a request?
A. Requests are passed directly to the Cognos content manager.
B. A connection is created to the database server.
C. The requests are directed to Access Manager.
D. Passwords are encrypted to ensure security.
42. Which of the following is true about Cognos 8 dispatchers?
A. Requests can be routed to specific dispatchers based on packages or user group requirements.
B. Each Java Virtual Machine (JVM) can have multiple dispatchers.
C. The administrator must register a new dispatcher manually.
D. Dispatchers cannot be managed as part of a folder set.
43. Which Cognos 8 Service makes external JNI calls?
A. Content Manager
B. Web gateway
C. Bootstrap Service
D. Presentation Service
44. On the customer’s Content Manager Server, the IT department has installed the 64bit Oracle Client.What best describes the use of a 64bit Oracle Client with the Cognos 8 product?
A. Cognos 8 may use the 64bit client drivers to connect to the data stores.
B. Cognos 8 may use the 64bit client drivers for connecting to the content store.
C. Cognos products must use the provided 32bit drivers, even if a 64bit client is installed.
D. The 64bit Client should be uninstalled and a 32bit Client installed in its place.
45. What is a portlet?
A. The routing subsection of a listener port.
B. A mechanism for displaying web content as part of a portal page.
C. A credential that is stored on the Web server.
D. A credential that is stored for the session only.
46. What communication protocol is used between the Web Server and the Cognos 8 dispatcher?
47. Which Cognos 8 Service runs outside the servlet container?
A. Job Service
B. Delivery Service
C. Data Integration
D. Report Service
48. What is true about the Cognos gateway?
A. It can reside on multiple web servers in a single environment.
B. Improbability Drive Algorithms (IDA) are used to detect intrusions.
C. ISAPI is the default gateway.
D. It must be installed on the user’s desktop.
49. Which DB2 environment variables are required for a UNIX Cognos 8 install?
A. DB2DIR and DB2INSTANCE
B. DB2STAGING and DB2INSTALL
C. DB2PATH and DB2LIB
D. DB2MEMORY and DB2WIN
50. Which driver does a Content Manager use to communicate to an Oracle Content Store?